IBPS Clerk Prelims Analysis: 10 October 2026

Oct 14, 2026 6 min read

Job highlights

Organisation Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS)
Location India
Employment type Other
Vacancies 11663

The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) is conducting the Clerk Preliminary Examination for CRP CSA XVI on 10 and 11 October 2026. This shift-by-shift review is intended for candidates who sat the test and those preparing for a later shift, with reported difficulty, good attempts and questions from English Language, Numerical Ability and Reasoning Ability.

The recruitment is for 11,663 Customer Service Associate (Clerk) vacancies across 11 public sector banks. The Prelims are scheduled for 10 and 11 October, with the Mains scheduled for 27 December 2026; the test is an online computer-based exam, and this analysis reports candidate feedback rather than recruitment application instructions. Shift 1 on 10 October was rated Easy to Moderate, with 77–86 overall good attempts cited in the shift summary; the later shifts’ full difficulty and attempt figures were not yet available in the supplied update.

Exam format and overview

The Prelims comprises 100 questions for 100 marks, completed in 60 minutes. Each section has its own 20-minute timer, and each incorrect answer attracts a penalty of 0.25 marks. In Shift 1, the sections appeared in the order English Language, Numerical Ability and Reasoning Ability.

ParticularDetails
ExamIBPS Clerk Prelims (CRP CSA XVI) 2026
Conducting bodyInstitute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS)
Total vacancies11,663
Recruiting banks11 public sector banks
Exam modeOnline computer-based test (CBT)
Total questions and marks100 questions and 100 marks
Duration60 minutes, with 20 minutes for each section
Negative marking0.25 marks deducted for each wrong answer
Official websiteibps.in
SectionQuestionsMarksTime
English Language303020 minutes
Numerical Ability353520 minutes
Reasoning Ability353520 minutes
Total10010060 minutes

Shift 1 review: 10 October

All three sections in Shift 1 were assessed as Easy to Moderate. Reasoning was described as the most scoring section, while Numerical Ability demanded the quickest calculations and was the most time-consuming. The shift summary gives an overall good-attempt range of 77–86; the section table below records its own estimates, including an overall figure of 80+.

SectionQuestionsDifficultyGood attempts
English Language30Easy to Moderate25–27
Numerical Ability35Easy to Moderate26–27
Reasoning Ability35Easy to Moderate28–30
Overall100Easy to Moderate80+

The attempt estimates assume approximately 90% accuracy. With a 0.25-mark penalty for an incorrect answer, 80 attempts at 90% accuracy would score roughly 70 marks, while 85 attempts at 80% accuracy would score about 64. These are estimates; final outcomes can also be affected by later shifts, state-wise vacancies and normalisation.

Reasoning Ability

Reasoning was rated Easy to Moderate. Three puzzle and arrangement sets accounted for about 15 of the 35 questions. The review notes that candidates who completed the seven-floor puzzle and parallel-row arrangement efficiently could move on to shorter topics. The suggested good-attempt range for this section is 27–30.

TopicQuestions reportedDifficulty
Floor-based puzzle (7 floors)5–6Moderate
Parallel-row seating arrangement4–5Easy to Moderate
Sequence-based puzzle (8 persons)5–6Moderate
Chinese coding5–6Easy
Digit and symbol series5–6Easy to Moderate
Inequality (non-comma)4Easy
Direction and distance3–4Easy to Moderate
Pair formation1Easy
Meaningful word1–2Easy
Odd one out1–2Easy
Total35Easy to Moderate

A suggested approach was to begin with inequality, coding and the one-mark miscellaneous questions, aiming to secure about 12 marks in the first five minutes before turning to the puzzles.

Numerical Ability

Numerical Ability was Easy to Moderate but took the most time. Data Interpretation and caselets made up 15 of the 35 questions, while simplification and arithmetic accounted for the other 20 and were described as largely direct. The suggested good-attempt range is 26–28.

TopicQuestions reportedDifficulty
Simplification or approximation8–10Easy
Arithmetic word problems8–10Easy to Moderate
Bar graph Data Interpretation6Moderate
Table Data Interpretation4–6Easy to Moderate
Caselet Data Interpretation (two sets: 3 + 2)6–7Moderate
Total35Easy to Moderate

The arithmetic questions covered percentage, profit and loss, ratio, ages, simple and compound interest, time and work, and speed and distance. The analysis suggested completing around 10 simplification questions in five minutes, then choosing the Data Interpretation set with the clearest numbers before attempting arithmetic.

English Language

English was rated Easy to Moderate. Reading Comprehension contributed roughly a third of the 30-question section, while the cloze test and word swap together accounted for 11 questions according to the review. Reading speed was described as an important factor in the section. The suggested good-attempt range is 24–27.

TopicQuestions reportedDifficulty
Reading Comprehension9–10Easy to Moderate
Cloze test6–5–6 (as reported)Easy
Word swap5–6Moderate
Error detection3–5Easy to Moderate
Sentence rearrangement3–5Easy to Moderate
Word usage2–4Moderate
Total30Easy to Moderate

The suggested order was to attempt the cloze test and error detection first, then spend a focused seven to eight minutes on Reading Comprehension.

Updates for the other 10 October shifts

The supplied update did not yet contain complete section-wise difficulty ratings or good-attempt ranges for Shifts 2, 3 and 4. Shift 2 feedback mentioned calculation-heavy, moderate Data Interpretation along with standard syllogism and cloze-test questions. Its detailed analysis was still pending. Shifts 3 and 4 were to be reviewed after candidates left the exam hall.

ShiftExam timeReported status or highlight
Shift 19:00–10:00 AMEasy to Moderate; 77–86 good attempts in the shift summary; puzzles, simplification and direct arithmetic featured
Shift 211:30 AM–12:30 PMFull difficulty and attempt figures pending; calculation-heavy DI, syllogism and cloze test noted in early feedback
Shift 32:00–3:00 PMAnalysis pending after the exam
Shift 44:30–5:30 PMAnalysis pending after the exam

Reporting and exam timings

Candidates were advised to reach the centre an hour before their scheduled exam start to complete verification. The reporting and exam times for the four shifts on 10 October were as follows.

ShiftReporting timeExam startsExam ends
Shift 1 (morning)8:00 AM9:00 AM10:00 AM
Shift 2 (mid-day)10:30 AM11:30 AM12:30 PM
Shift 3 (afternoon)1:00 PM2:00 PM3:00 PM
Shift 4 (evening)3:30 PM4:30 PM5:30 PM

Preparation pointers from the shift review

  1. Revise floor-based and sequence puzzles; the review reported 10 questions from these areas in Shift 1.
  2. Practise solving 10 simplification questions in about five minutes.
  3. Work through one full-length Reading Comprehension passage and one cloze test each day.
  4. Prioritise accuracy over attempting the maximum number of questions because incorrect answers lose 0.25 marks.
  5. For the exam, carry the admit card, a valid photo ID and a passport-size photograph, and arrive before the reporting time.

Important Dates

EventDate
IBPS Clerk Prelims, first exam day10 October 2026
IBPS Clerk Prelims, second exam day11 October 2026
IBPS Clerk Mains27 December 2026

Vacancy Details

IBPS is conducting CRP CSA XVI to fill 11,663 Customer Service Associate (Clerk) vacancies across 11 public sector banks. The source does not provide a bank-wise or category-wise vacancy breakdown.

Selection Process

The supplied information identifies the Preliminary Examination and the Mains Examination, with the Prelims scheduled for 10 and 11 October 2026 and the Mains for 27 December 2026. It does not set out detailed qualifying rules or other selection stages. The Prelims is an online test of 100 questions for 100 marks, divided among English Language (30 questions), Numerical Ability (35) and Reasoning Ability (35), with 20 minutes per section and a 0.25-mark penalty for each wrong answer.

Candidates using this review to prepare for a later shift should check the official IBPS website for exam notices and any subsequent updates, and follow their admit-card reporting instructions.

Important links

Frequently asked questions

How many vacancies are covered by IBPS Clerk CRP CSA XVI? +

The recruitment is for 11,663 Customer Service Associate (Clerk) vacancies across 11 public sector banks. The source does not include a bank-wise or category-wise breakup.

What was the difficulty level of the 10 October 2026 Shift 1 paper? +

Shift 1 was rated Easy to Moderate overall, and each of its three sections received the same difficulty rating.

What were considered good attempts in Shift 1? +

The shift summary reported 77–86 overall good attempts. Its section estimates were 25–27 in English, 26–27 in Numerical Ability and 28–30 in Reasoning; the overall row in the section table also showed 80+.

When are the other IBPS Clerk Prelims shifts on 10 October? +

Shift 2 is scheduled for 11:30 AM–12:30 PM, Shift 3 for 2:00–3:00 PM and Shift 4 for 4:30–5:30 PM. The supplied update did not yet include complete analysis figures for those shifts.

Is there negative marking in the IBPS Clerk Prelims? +

Yes. The exam overview states that 0.25 marks are deducted for each incorrect answer.

When is the IBPS Clerk Mains examination scheduled? +

The Mains examination is scheduled for 27 December 2026.

#IBPS Clerk #Exam Analysis #CRP CSA XVI #Prelims 2026 #Bank Exam

More jobs