SBI Clerk Prelims 2026 Exam Analysis
Job highlights
| Organisation | State Bank of India |
|---|---|
| Employment type | Other |
| Vacancies | 9766 |
The State Bank of India (SBI) Clerk Preliminary Examination 2026 began on 26 September for Junior Associate (Customer Support & Sales) vacancies. This analysis is intended for candidates who sat the exam and those preparing for an upcoming shift, with reported difficulty levels, good attempts and recalled question topics.
SBI is recruiting for 9,766 Junior Associate posts, and the prelims are scheduled for 26 and 27 September 2026 in four shifts per day. The test is an online examination with 100 questions for 100 marks, a 60-minute duration and sectional timing; candidates report that progression to Mains depends on State/UT- and category-wise cut-offs.
Important Dates
| Event | Date |
|---|---|
| SBI Clerk Prelims, first examination day | 26 September 2026 |
| SBI Clerk Prelims, second examination day | 27 September 2026 |
Vacancy Details
The recruitment covers 9,766 Junior Associate (Customer Support & Sales) posts. The information available for this exam analysis does not provide a category-wise or State/UT-wise vacancy breakdown.
Exam Format and Shift Timings
The Preliminary Examination has 100 questions carrying 100 marks, divided among English Language, Numerical Ability and Reasoning Ability. The overall test lasts 60 minutes, with sectional timing. The examination is conducted online as a computer-based test, and a wrong answer attracts a penalty of 0.25 mark.
| Shift on 26 September | Reporting time | Exam time |
|---|---|---|
| Shift 1 | 8:00 am | 9:00 am to 10:00 am |
| Shift 2 | 10:30 am | 11:30 am to 12:30 pm |
There are four shifts each day. The available timing details specify the first two shifts only.
Good Attempts and Difficulty by Shift
Good-attempt figures are estimates based on candidate feedback, not official qualifying scores. Reports vary slightly: the shift-wise summary gives Shift 1 an overall range of 79–86, while other parts of the analysis refer to 77–86. Section-level estimates also differ between the summary and the detailed Shift 1 report, so the ranges below should be treated as indicative rather than definitive.
| Shift on 26 September | English | Numerical Ability | Reasoning | Overall good attempts reported | Overall difficulty |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Shift 1 | 23–26 in the summary; 24–26 in detailed analysis | 26–29 in the summary; 27–30 in detailed analysis | 28–31 in the summary; 27–32 in detailed analysis | 79–86 in the summary; 77–86 elsewhere in the report | Easy to Moderate |
| Shift 2 | 25–27 | 24–25 | 29–30 | 78–82 | Moderate |
Shift 1 Analysis: 26 September
Candidates generally described Shift 1 as Easy to Moderate. English was reported as the most approachable section, while the Numerical Ability section rewarded quick calculations. Reasoning had the highest reported attempt range, with several puzzle sets taking time but considered manageable.
English Language
The 30-question English section was described as the easiest part of the paper by many candidates. The Reading Comprehension passage concerned a cricketer’s career and included vocabulary questions on the words “missed” and “stayed.”
| Topic | Reported questions |
|---|---|
| Reading Comprehension, including vocabulary from a passage about a cricketer’s career | 7–9 |
| Sentence-based error spotting | 3–4 |
| Single fillers | 3–6 |
| Sentence improvement or phrase replacement | 2–4 |
| Word swap | 4–5 |
| Para jumbles, with sentences labelled A to E | 5–6 |
| Total | 30 |
The Reading Comprehension questions were recalled as direct and fact-based. Word Swap and Para Jumbles together accounted for a reported nine questions.
Numerical Ability
The 35-question Numerical Ability section was described as speed-focused, with simplification and arithmetic forming a substantial share. Both data interpretation sets were reported to require relatively light calculations.
| Topic | Reported questions |
|---|---|
| Simplification or approximation | 11–15 |
| Table data interpretation on individuals’ Economics and History marks | 4–5 |
| Line graph data interpretation comparing male and female values | 4–5 |
| Arithmetic application problems | 11–14 |
| Total | 35 |
The analysis noted that candidates comfortable with simplification could complete roughly 12–15 questions quickly. The table-based set compared marks in Economics and History, while the line graph asked for differences between male and female values.
Reasoning Ability
Reasoning contained 35 questions and had the highest good-attempt range in the detailed Shift 1 breakdown. Three puzzle sets accounted for about 15 questions, while direct topics such as syllogism, inequality and direction were identified as possible quicker attempts.
| Topic | Reported questions |
|---|---|
| Sequence or box-based puzzle involving eight persons or boxes | 5 |
| Linear seating with an uncertain number of people, up to 14, facing north | 3–4 |
| Eight-floor puzzle or box-based number puzzle | 5 |
| Month-and-date puzzle covering September to December, with two dates each | 5 |
| Direction and distance | 3 |
| Direct inequality | 3 |
| Syllogism | 3 |
| Alphabet or word series | 4–5 |
| Miscellaneous questions, including odd one out, pair formation and number-based questions | 3 |
| Total | 35 |
Shift 2 Analysis: 26 September
Shift 2 was rated Moderate overall in the reported shift summary. Candidates described English as easy, Numerical Ability as a test of speed and Reasoning as a puzzle-heavy section. The topic counts below are recalled estimates.
English Language
English had 30 questions for 30 marks and a 20-minute sectional time. The Reading Comprehension set was the largest single component, alongside questions on vocabulary, sentence structure and rearrangement.
| Question type | Reported questions |
|---|---|
| Reading Comprehension | 8–9 |
| Fill in the blanks | 5–6 |
| Correct or incorrect | 4–5 |
| Phrase replacement | 5–6 |
| Word swap | 3–4 |
| Match the column | 2–3 |
| Sentence rearrangement | 3–4 |
Numerical Ability
Numerical Ability comprised 35 questions for 35 marks, with a 20-minute sectional time. The two data interpretation sets concerned library sales of books and magazines from Monday to Thursday, and laptop sales by A, B, C and D. Arithmetic and simplification made up much of the remaining section.
| Topic | Reported questions |
|---|---|
| Table data interpretation: library books and magazines, Monday to Thursday | 4–5 |
| Bar graph data interpretation: laptops sold by A, B, C and D | 6–7 |
| Missing number series | 3–4 |
| Arithmetic | 11–13 |
| Simplification | 9–11 |
Reasoning Ability
Reasoning had 35 questions for 35 marks and a 20-minute sectional time. Four reported puzzle sets included an 11-person straight-line seating arrangement, an eight-person square seating arrangement with candidates facing inside, a date-and-month puzzle, and a month puzzle covering January to August.
| Topic | Reported questions |
|---|---|
| Straight-line seating arrangement involving 11 people | 5–6 |
| Date- and month-based puzzle | 4–5 |
| Square seating arrangement involving eight people facing inside | 4–5 |
| Month-based puzzle covering January to August | 6–7 |
| Blood relation | 1–2 |
| Number series-based questions | 4–5 |
| Syllogism | 5–6 |
| Miscellaneous questions | 5–6 |
Understanding Good Attempts and Score Estimates
Good attempts do not equal the official cut-off. The final score depends on accuracy because the exam deducts 0.25 mark for every incorrect response. The examples below illustrate how the reported attempt count and accuracy translate into a net score.
| Total attempts | Accuracy | Correct answers | Wrong answers | Net score |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 75 | 95% | 71 | 4 | 70.00 |
| 80 | 90% | 72 | 8 | 70.00 |
| 85 | 85% | 72 | 13 | 68.75 |
| 90 | 80% | 72 | 18 | 67.50 |
The examples show that more attempts do not necessarily produce a higher score when accuracy falls. For example, 75 attempts at 95% accuracy and 80 attempts at 90% accuracy both produce an estimated net score of 70. The report suggests using the Shift 1 good-attempt estimate of 77–86 as a reference, while prioritising accuracy.
Prelims cut-offs are set separately for each State/UT and category, so the qualifying score can vary by region. The analysis notes that locations with more applicants and fewer vacancies may have higher cut-offs, and candidates should compare their performance with the previous year’s cut-off for the State/UT they applied for. It also states that SBI does not apply a sectional cut-off in the prelims, although balanced performance across sections can help candidates maintain a strong overall score.
Tips for Candidates Appearing in Later Shifts
- Begin with the section that is strongest for you to build momentum.
- Review month-date, floor and box puzzles, which appeared in the reported shifts.
- Practise simplification for speed, as it made up a sizeable part of the Numerical Ability questions.
- Revise Word Swap and Para Jumbles for English.
- Avoid blind guessing because each wrong answer costs 0.25 mark.
- Keep track of the sectional timer and move on from a puzzle that is taking too long if necessary.
- Follow the reporting time on your admit card, arrive at the examination centre early and carry a valid photo ID.
Question counts and topic descriptions in this analysis are based on candidate recollections, so reports may differ and ranges are used where accounts vary. Candidates taking an upcoming shift can use the recalled topics to guide revision while following their admit-card instructions and managing time carefully.
Frequently asked questions
What was the overall difficulty level of SBI Clerk Prelims Shift 1 on 26 September 2026? +
Candidates generally rated Shift 1 Easy to Moderate. The report gives an overall good-attempt estimate of 79–86 in its shift summary, while other sections cite a range of 77–86.
How many good attempts were reported for Shift 2? +
The shift summary reports 78–82 overall good attempts for Shift 2, which was rated Moderate. The section estimates were 25–27 for English, 24–25 for Numerical Ability and 29–30 for Reasoning.
What topics appeared in Shift 1 Reasoning? +
Reported topics included sequence and box puzzles, linear seating, floor and month-date puzzles, direction and distance, inequality, syllogism, alphabet or word series, and miscellaneous questions.
Is the good-attempt range the same as the SBI Clerk prelims cut-off? +
No. Good attempts are estimates based on candidate feedback. The official cut-off is determined separately by State/UT and category, and the score also depends on accuracy.
Is there negative marking in the SBI Clerk Prelims? +
Yes. The analysis states that 0.25 mark is deducted for each wrong answer.
When were the SBI Clerk Prelims 2026 scheduled? +
The prelims were scheduled for 26 and 27 September 2026, with four shifts per day. The provided timing details list Shift 1 from 9:00 am to 10:00 am and Shift 2 from 11:30 am to 12:30 pm on 26 September.